Tuesday, September 22, 2015

I don't get it [Updated & Bumped]

[Scroll down for Update with important observation]

A man has been convicted of murdering his wife of 12 years "to benefit from her $4.7 million in life insurance policies, which she didn't know existed." [emphasis added]


I've only been in this industry a measly 31+ years, so maybe I'm missing something, but how does one amass almost $5 million in life insurance and not even know about it?

Years ago, Petersen International Underwriters would issue policies on divorced spouses to cover alimony and/or child support obligations; supposedly, this could be done without the insured's knowledge. I never understood how this would work, but it's a moot point now since they apparently no longer offer that coverage.

Life insurance applications require that the proposed insured sign multiple times, and depending on the face amount, undergo medical underwriting (exams, financial interviews, etc). I just don't see how the perpetrator was able to obtain any such coverage, let alone almost 5 million dollars worth of it.

Someone care to clue me in?

UPDATE: FoIB Jeff M asks this rather crucial question (that the MSM didn't/won't):

"Since the lady's dead, how would anyone know whether she knew the insurance policies existed?"

Did the prosecution avail itself of the court's Ouija board?
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